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Lancerdad34
07-10-2009, 01:23 PM
I was doing a LL 12 year old district game last night and had R1 (2 outs) with a grounder hit to F4. R1 runs right into F4 as he fields the ball and they both fall down. As they did the tag was appied and I called R1 out on that. My question in a play like that should I have called intereference first or with two out does it matter? Either way the inning was over.

Thanks,
Brian

Matt13
07-10-2009, 01:42 PM
I was doing a LL 12 year old district game last night and had R1 (2 outs) with a grounder hit to F4. R1 runs right into F4 as he fields the ball and they both fall down. As they did the tag was appied and I called R1 out on that. My question in a play like that should I have called intereference first or with two out does it matter? Either way the inning was over.

Thanks,
Brian

Interference. It is an immediate dead ball, so the tag never happened.

robbyrudd455
07-10-2009, 03:30 PM
I was doing a LL 12 year old district game last night and had R1 (2 outs) with a grounder hit to F4. R1 runs right into F4 as he fields the ball and they both fall down. As they did the tag was appied and I called R1 out on that. My question in a play like that should I have called intereference first or with two out does it matter? Either way the inning was over.

Thanks,
Brian

Yes, make sure you call that since if it happens later in the game with say 1 out and you call interference then, the other coach will say "Hey, that happened 2 innings ago and you called it nothing!"

Pete_Booth
07-10-2009, 05:17 PM
I was doing a LL 12 year old district game last night and had R1 (2 outs) with a grounder hit to F4. R1 runs right into F4 as he fields the ball and they both fall down. As they did the tag was appied and I called R1 out on that. My question in a play like that should I have called intereference first or with two out does it matter? Either way the inning was over.

Thanks,
Brian

It could make a BIG difference. Suppose we had R1/R3 and only 1 out. If you do not call interference and simply say R1 out on the tag, R3's run then counts.

Interference is an immediate dead ball (in most instances) and runners return to their TOP bases.

In your situation it didn't matter because R1 was FORCED to go to second base and was the 3rd out and no runs can score as a result of the third out being a Force out.

The point is in other situations it could have a BIG IMPACT if you do not rule accordingly.

if the runner interfered do not "wait and see" the call is

1. TIME
2. That's interference
3. Somebody is out in this case R1
4. Other runners return to their TOP base

Pete Booth

umpgent
07-13-2009, 11:19 PM
PETE - READ the OP.

He said with two out does it matter?.
The answer is still yes, but your dissertation is off the point.

Lancer, Robby and Matt gave good answers.

postman
07-14-2009, 03:35 AM
hmmm, though, interesting point on the perception of hte play and future plays. I had a play at home and there was interference on batter, but the catcher made the tag anyway. I called R3 out on tag. DC asked if there was intereference, and I said yes there was, but your player made the tag anyway so same result. Then I told OC that batter was in interference position and R3 would have been out without regard to tag. Everyone understood so I thought no big deal, but I see the point of taking priority on the INT play. Interesting.

CoachJM
07-14-2009, 04:36 AM
postman,

No, actually, a 6.06(c) violation is handled a little differently. If, despite the BI, the F2 is able to successfully retire the runner he is playing on with his initial tag/throw, the BI is "disregarded" and any advances stand. The ball remains in play.

You got it right.

JM

robcichon
07-14-2009, 07:12 PM
PETE - READ the OP.

He said with two out does it matter?.
The answer is still yes, but your dissertation is off the point.

Lancer, Robby and Matt gave good answers.

Your reply is off the point. the OP said OR.....

not calling the INT first and always is a rookie mistake. Something you WANT to avoid!

postman
07-15-2009, 01:59 AM
oh, thanks Jim. I didn't know the rule but it just seemed intuitive that if he made the play then call the out on the play and ball stays in play like you said. thanks for the claification.

So, to be sure then, if he didn't make the play and I called the BI, then ball is dead- correct?

bobjenkins
07-15-2009, 02:08 PM
oh, thanks Jim. I didn't know the rule but it just seemed intuitive that if he made the play then call the out on the play and ball stays in play like you said. thanks for the claification.

So, to be sure then, if he didn't make the play and I called the BI, then ball is dead- correct?

6.06(c) CMT