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umpire21
08-25-2008, 07:15 AM
According to Jaksa and Roder a runner who misses first base, but beats out the throw is said to have acquired the base. With that being said, BR misses first and F3 recieves the throw from F5 after the BR has clearly "acquired" first base, F3 steps on first while passing it while BR is still off of the bag, does that qualify as an appeal attempt under OBR although he is clueless to the appeal. I know under FED a fielder must know what he is doing to appeal, Im not sure how intent and knowledge works and is considered under OBR.

Another situation, but similar is bases loaded, base hit to F9, who fires the ball to the plate. R3 over runs the plate. All runners advance safely to their next base. F2, not realizing that R3 has missed the plate, catches the throw from F9 too late to attempt a tag. He nonchalantly touches the plate. Is the force still on for an automatic "out" or is it an appeal play becuase R3 has "acquired" home?

Thanks in advance!

mstaylor
08-25-2008, 12:28 PM
There is no accidental appeals in any code. There used to be in Fed but they fixed that when they put appeals back in. In your play at first the F3 can appeal but he has to make it clear to the umpire that is what he is doing.

dileonardoja
08-25-2008, 04:06 PM
Same with the play at the plate. If the fielder in either of your sitches says to the umpire, prior to the runner touching "he missed first". That would constitute an appeal and the runner would be out.