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HoosierBlue
10-20-2006, 03:35 PM
This is an offshoot of the David Eckstein sitch the other night.

If the count is 2-2, and the batter attempts to swing (not bunt for the purpose of this Q) and the ball pinches the batter's hand with the bat handle so that there is no discernable way of knowing whether it hit the bat first or the hand first, and the ball rolls to the pitcher's mound, what is the call?

I happen to believe there is no rule to support this call, yet there is a common sense method by which it is usually called. There certainly may be a casebook or interp manual reference of which I am not aware.
Rich_Ives
10-20-2006, 06:17 PM
Reportedly, the following happened in a discussion with a MLB umpire at a clinic.


Q: What if you can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first?

A: It hit his hand first.

Q: But I mean what if you can't tell . . . .

A: IT HIT HIS F*&*&^* HAND FIRST!
HoosierBlue
10-20-2006, 06:22 PM
Reportedly, the following happened in a discussion with a MLB umpire at a clinic.


Q: What if you can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first?

A: It hit his hand first.

Q: But I mean what if you can't tell . . . .

A: IT HIT HIS F*&*&^* HAND FIRST!
So are we to gather from this particular MLB umpire that he "defaults" to the ball hit the hand first when he cannot tell? Or is this particular MLB umpire simply a moron?
HoosierBlue
10-20-2006, 06:33 PM
And now I realize that I screwed up the poll ... I didn't realize you could only answer one of the five choices.
Rich_Ives
10-20-2006, 06:54 PM
Reportedly, the following happened in a discussion with a MLB umpire at a clinic.


Q: What if you can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first?

A: It hit his hand first.

Q: But I mean what if you can't tell . . . .

A: IT HIT HIS F*&*&^* HAND FIRST!
So are we to gather from this particular MLB umpire that he "defaults" to the ball hit the hand first when he cannot tell? Or is this particular MLB umpire simply a moron?

He defaults- as do 99.44% of those in the situation.

Too many umpires are out looking for reasons to not call a HBP. Watch some games. How many times do you see an umpire deny the HBP? Virtually none.
HoosierBlue
10-20-2006, 07:57 PM
He defaults- as do 99.44% of those in the situation.

Too many umpires are out looking for reasons to not call a HBP. Watch some games. How many times do you see an umpire deny the HBP? Virtually none.

Agreed, but in my scenario he'd still have to call it a strike and not award the base by the fact that he was swinging.
Anonymous67
10-21-2006, 06:17 AM
This is an offshoot of the David Eckstein sitch the other night.

If the count is 2-2, and the batter attempts to swing (not bunt for the purpose of this Q) and the ball pinches the batter's hand with the bat handle so that there is no discernable way of knowing whether it hit the bat first or the hand first, and the ball rolls to the pitcher's mound, what is the call?

I happen to believe there is no rule to support this call, yet there is a common sense method by which it is usually called. There certainly may be a casebook or interp manual reference of which I am not aware.

It beomes dead once it hits the batter. It cannot be a fair ball.

Did McCarver set up this poll?
Anonymous67
10-21-2006, 06:19 AM
Reportedly, the following happened in a discussion with a MLB umpire at a clinic.


Q: What if you can't tell if it hit the hand or the bat first?

A: It hit his hand first.

Q: But I mean what if you can't tell . . . .

A: IT HIT HIS F*&*&^* HAND FIRST!
So are we to gather from this particular MLB umpire that he "defaults" to the ball hit the hand first when he cannot tell? Or is this particular MLB umpire simply a moron?

Mr. McCarver, this is what is taught at both pro schools.