View Full Version : Great acting job
retired
03-24-2011, 09:09 PM
R1 on 1st. B2 up with 1+1 Count. Next pitch hits dirt and caroms off PU's shin guard. B2 trys to play it off as the ball hit him. He proceeds to go to 1st as if the ball hit him. A great act. R1 who was never attempting to steal, started to jog toward second. His assumption was B2 was HBP. After B2 reached first, PU calls time to confer with partner to see if in fact B2 was hit. Absolutely not. Great acting job. Umps moved R1 back to 1st. Coach comes out and wants an explanation why R1 was not awarded/left on 2nd. PU told him I had time out. He says not until B2 was at 1st. True. PU explained to him since there was no attempt to steal and B2 was theatrical and deceptive PU would not allow R1 to advance.
Was PU correct in his ruling?
CoachJM
03-24-2011, 09:14 PM
No.
JM
semper_fi_72
03-25-2011, 12:10 AM
R1 Stole 2B!!!!!!!!!!!!!! :rolleyes:
Bluefish
03-25-2011, 01:03 AM
I have had batter pretend it was ball four on 2-2 pitch and R1 moves to second. It is a set play. R1 steals 2nd uncontested. D's fault for not paying attention.
Guidry
03-25-2011, 01:05 PM
Similar situation when a 3rd strike (less than 2 out) is dropped and a runner on 1st. R1 takes off to 2nd as B1 takes off to 1st. Catcher tries to throw B1 out at first even though he is already out. Not saying it is any sort of acting or a set play, but it works out that way so many times at lower levels.
captk
03-25-2011, 01:42 PM
R1 on 1st. B2 up with 1+1 Count. Next pitch hits dirt and caroms off PU's shin guard. B2 trys to play it off as the ball hit him. He proceeds to go to 1st as if the ball hit him. A great act. R1 who was never attempting to steal, started to jog toward second. His assumption was B2 was HBP. After B2 reached first, PU calls time to confer with partner to see if in fact B2 was hit. Absolutely not. Great acting job. Umps moved R1 back to 1st. Coach comes out and wants an explanation why R1 was not awarded/left on 2nd. PU told him I had time out. He says not until B2 was at 1st. True. PU explained to him since there was no attempt to steal and B2 was theatrical and deceptive PU would not allow R1 to advance.
Was PU correct in his ruling?
The ruling was correct, but the mechanics were a piss poor disaster. :mad:
If the batter had in fact been HBP, this is an immediate dead ball, which the PU should have called immediately stopping any ensuing action, awarding B2 1st, forcing R1 to 2nd.
Once he then conferred with PU and changed his ruling to not HBP, there would be no argument, returning all players to their positions at TOP.
If the PU felt there was no HBP, he should have stopped B2s trot to 1st by calling the pitch a ball and ordering B2 to immediately return to the batters box.
Ironhead17
03-26-2011, 04:59 AM
How do you get a correct rulling out of that? I agree that the runner should have been stopped from advancing w/ "BALL #" loudly but to say that there was no attempt to steal and return R1 to TOP is not within the rules.
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